I don’t believe I need to say this, but I do:
I can’t believe I have to write this. Unfortunately, some people think this is an open question or want to imply Jesus might have had same-sex attraction. The most recent example:
Austen Ivereigh tweeted, “Por qué dices que nuestro Señor no tenía tendencias homosexuales? De qué signos o dichos o gestos deduces esto?” (English: Why do you say our Lord had no homosexual tendencies? By what signs or gestures do you deduce this?)
Fr. Straub responded, “This is very scandalous and possibly a heresy. You need to remove this tweet and confess your sin. Lord, have mercy.”
I waited, as I didn’t want to rashly post a reply while Ivereigh repented. But 48 hours after, that tweet was still up. It got quite ratioed, with Fr. Straub getting 90 likes and Ivereigh only 2 likes.
I find this topic awkward to talk about but I think with all the things going around today, someone needs to clarify it. I hope the following is helpful to you.
I want to present two arguments. Both begin with Jesus as the perfect man. The first then moves on to the nature of human sexuality and the latter to the nature of human interpersonal relationships.
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